CAPEX intensive industries: should seller be paid net of long term debt?
Hi everyone, I need M&A folks help here for a clarification. We have come across at companies that are CAPEX intensive (equipment, not real estate), hence have long term debt (banks most of the times) that was used to fund that CAPEX. After we have decided on a specific multiple and a MVIC, should we have to subtract that long term debt from the MVIC (so the seller gets paid net of long term debt) or should we retain that amount and paid the long term debt by ourselves? Thanks!