Post Acquisition - Can I hire a GM with call options on their equity?

I'm a prior searcher turned operator running a franchise with multiple territories. I'm in the early stages of hiring a GM (someone with strong industry and local connections) to run the business for me, enabling me to pursue other acquisitions. I want the GM to be incentivized by the growth of the company and I also want some level of protection against them setting up shop next door, given that non-competes are not too powerful in California. The only other possibility is to make them a partner and have them also sign the FDD. The franchisor requires 25% equity to consider them an operating partner and being eligible to sign the FDD. I primarily only want to do a profit share incentive with the GM instead of giving up equity.

Now from an owner POV, what if the GM hire is not a fit or leaves the company? Then I will want to hold call ptions on their 25% shares such that I get the right to execute if they are separated from the company. I can make the 25% shares non-transferable and my call options will never expire.

To clarify - I'm NOT trying to mislead the potential GM hire. I will be upfront with them that their incentive is a nominal base pay ($80K-$100K is standard in this location) and the 25% profit share above a certain cashflow threshold and not the equity being assigned to them. I will not be giving the 25% equity right away but will have an initial period of 3-6 months with them working under base+bonus and then transitioning to equity once there is good mutual fit. I will be clear with them regarding this as well. Yes, I do know about the tech startup standard of 1 year cliff and 4-5 year equity but I personally prefer profit share and the equity here is only in play to have the GM sign the FDD.

  1. Does this seem like a feasible plan?
  2. Have you or do you know of anyone who has done something similar to this?
  3. All of the shares in the company are common shares. So if I give 25% equity then is the GM entitled to 25% of all cashflow instead of my proposed 25% of cashflow above a certain threshold?
  4. Anything else obvious that I could be missing here?